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IMAT practice questions

Free IMAT practice questions with explained answers.

Good practice is more than checking a score. Build focused or mixed sets, work under appropriate time pressure, record confidence, and review why each decision succeeded or failed.

Try 28 free questionsRead the preparation strategy

Free IMAT practice

28 questions with answers and explanations

Six original examples each for biology and chemistry, and four each for physics, maths, reasoning and reading. Read them without an account. They are not official past-paper questions, a full mock exam, or a prediction of your admission score.

Write your answer and reasoning before revealing each solution. Note whether a mistake came from knowledge, reading, method or calculation. The 16 subject-guide examples also appear here, followed by two additional questions per subject.

IMAT Biology practice questions

Review the Biology topics and study guide.

Question 1 · Genetics

At a single gene locus, two heterozygous parents (Aa × Aa) produce offspring. Assuming ordinary Mendelian segregation, what is the probability that an offspring is heterozygous?

  1. A.1/4
  2. B.1/2
  3. C.3/4
  4. D.1
  5. E.0
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer B: 1/2

Each parent contributes A or a with probability 1/2. The four equally likely combinations are AA, Aa, aA, and aa.

Two of the four combinations are heterozygous, so the probability is 2/4 = 1/2. A dominant phenotype and a heterozygous genotype are different questions.

Question 2 · Cell transport

A membrane allows water through but not the dissolved solute. The solution inside a cell is more concentrated than the solution outside. At equal pressure, what is the initial net movement of water?

  1. A.Out of the cell
  2. B.No net movement
  3. C.Into the cell
  4. D.Only if ATP is supplied
  5. E.Water moves only with the solute
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: Into the cell

Under these conditions, water moves by osmosis towards the solution with the greater solute concentration, so the initial net movement is into the cell.

Osmosis does not require ATP. The word initial matters: concentration differences and pressure can change as water moves.

Question 3 · Protein trafficking

Which sequence follows the usual pathway for a protein secreted by an animal cell?

  1. A.Golgi → nucleus → mitochondrion → cell wall
  2. B.Rough ER → Golgi → secretory vesicle → plasma membrane
  3. C.Mitochondrion → smooth ER → nucleus → plasma membrane
  4. D.Ribosome → DNA → Golgi → cell wall
  5. E.Plasma membrane → nucleus → rough ER → cytosol
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer B: Rough ER → Golgi → secretory vesicle → plasma membrane

A protein entering the secretory pathway is made by a ribosome associated with rough ER and enters the ER. Transport vesicles carry it to the Golgi for further processing and sorting.

A secretory vesicle then fuses with the plasma membrane to release its contents by exocytosis. Animal cells have no cell wall, and the Golgi is not a site of translation.

Question 4 · DNA quantity

A diploid cell in G1 has six chromosomes and 4 pg of nuclear DNA. Immediately after S phase, before mitosis begins, which counts are expected?

  1. A.12 chromosomes and 8 pg DNA
  2. B.6 chromosomes and 4 pg DNA
  3. C.3 chromosomes and 2 pg DNA
  4. D.6 chromosomes and 8 pg DNA
  5. E.12 chromosomes and 4 pg DNA
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer D: 6 chromosomes and 8 pg DNA

S phase copies the DNA: 4 pg × 2 = 8 pg. Each chromosome now has two joined sister chromatids, so the chromosome count remains six at this stage.

Doubling DNA quantity is different from doubling chromosome number. The question is about one cell after replication, before sister chromatids separate; it is not asking about a meiotic product.

Question 5 · Cell division

A diploid cell has eight chromosomes. After DNA replication, it completes ordinary mitosis and cytokinesis without mutation. How many chromosomes does each daughter cell have?

  1. A.4
  2. B.8
  3. C.16
  4. D.24
  5. E.32
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer B: 8

DNA replication makes two sister chromatids per chromosome; it does not double the chromosome count before the chromatids separate.

Mitosis distributes one copy of each chromosome to each daughter cell. Each daughter therefore has eight chromosomes. Halving the diploid number describes meiosis, rather than ordinary mitosis.

Question 6 · Enzymes

An enzyme works at 37°C. After prolonged heating to 90°C, its activity remains very low even when returned to 37°C. Which explanation best accounts for this observation?

  1. A.The enzyme used up all its atoms
  2. B.Cooling always increases reaction rates
  3. C.The enzyme became a carbohydrate
  4. D.Heat altered the enzyme's structure and active site
  5. E.All enzymes require a temperature of 90°C
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer D: Heat altered the enzyme's structure and active site

Many enzymes are proteins whose catalytic activity depends on their three-dimensional structure. Strong heating can disrupt that structure and alter the active site.

The persistent loss of activity after cooling is consistent with denaturation. The observation does not establish that every enzyme behaves this way; heat stability varies between enzymes.

IMAT Chemistry practice questions

Review the Chemistry topics and study guide.

Question 1 · Stoichiometry

Calcium carbonate decomposes completely: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. Using molar masses of 100 g/mol for CaCO₃ and 44 g/mol for CO₂, how much CO₂ forms from 5.0 g of CaCO₃?

  1. A.0.22 g
  2. B.1.1 g
  3. C.2.2 g
  4. D.4.4 g
  5. E.5.0 g
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: 2.2 g

The starting amount is 5.0 g ÷ 100 g/mol = 0.050 mol. The balanced reaction produces one mole of CO₂ per mole of CaCO₃.

The product mass is 0.050 mol × 44 g/mol = 2.2 g. The ratio 1:1 is a mole ratio, not a mass ratio.

Question 2 · Solutions

40 mL of a 0.50 mol/L solution is diluted with water to a final total volume of 200 mL. No solute reacts or is lost. What is the final concentration?

  1. A.0.05 mol/L
  2. B.0.10 mol/L
  3. C.0.20 mol/L
  4. D.0.40 mol/L
  5. E.2.50 mol/L
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer B: 0.10 mol/L

The amount of solute is unchanged. Use c₁V₁ = c₂V₂ with volumes in matching units: c₂ = 0.50 × 40/200.

The result is 0.10 mol/L. The final volume is 200 mL, rather than 200 mL added to the starting solution.

Question 3 · Functional groups

Which functional group is represented by the COOH part of CH₃COOH?

  1. A.Ether
  2. B.Aldehyde
  3. C.Ketone
  4. D.Carboxylic acid
  5. E.Alcohol
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer D: Carboxylic acid

The carbonyl carbon, C=O, is bonded to an OH group. That combination is the carboxyl group of a carboxylic acid.

An alcohol has an OH group attached to a saturated carbon in this introductory classification. The OH within COOH does not make the acid an alcohol, and a ketone's carbonyl carbon is bonded to two carbon groups.

Question 4 · Structural isomerism

Ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH, and dimethyl ether, CH₃OCH₃, have which relationship?

  1. A.They are the same structure drawn in different orientations
  2. B.They have different molecular formulas
  3. C.They are constitutional isomers
  4. D.They are isotopes of oxygen
  5. E.They have identical connectivity but different spatial arrangements
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: They are constitutional isomers

Both formulas contain two carbons, six hydrogens and one oxygen: C₂H₆O. Their molecular formula is the same, but their connectivity differs.

In ethanol the oxygen is bonded to a carbon and a hydrogen; in dimethyl ether it links two carbon groups. That makes them constitutional, or structural, isomers rather than the same compound redrawn.

Question 5 · Acid–base calculations

25.0 mL of 0.200 mol/L HCl is completely neutralised by 0.100 mol/L NaOH. The reaction is HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O. What volume of NaOH is required?

  1. A.12.5 mL
  2. B.25.0 mL
  3. C.50.0 mL
  4. D.100 mL
  5. E.200 mL
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: 50.0 mL

The acid contains 0.0250 L × 0.200 mol/L = 0.00500 mol HCl. The balanced equation requires the same amount of NaOH.

V = n/c = 0.00500/0.100 = 0.0500 L = 50.0 mL. Equal reacting amounts do not imply equal volumes when concentrations differ.

Question 6 · Equilibrium

For N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), an equilibrium mixture is compressed at constant temperature. Considering the change in volume alone, which direction is favoured?

  1. A.Towards NH₃, the side with fewer gas molecules
  2. B.Towards N₂ and H₂, the side with more gas molecules
  3. C.Neither direction, because both sides contain nitrogen
  4. D.Only the forward rate changes, with no reverse reaction
  5. E.The equilibrium constant necessarily increases
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer A: Towards NH₃, the side with fewer gas molecules

There are four moles of gaseous reactants for every two moles of gaseous product in the balanced equation. Compression favours the side with fewer gaseous particles, so the equilibrium shifts towards NH₃.

The equilibrium constant for this reaction depends on temperature. Since temperature is fixed, the volume change shifts the composition without changing that constant.

IMAT Physics practice questions

Review the Physics topics and study guide.

Question 1 · Kinematics

An object starts from rest and accelerates in a straight line at a constant 2.0 m/s² for 5.0 s. What distance does it travel during this interval?

  1. A.5 m
  2. B.10 m
  3. C.20 m
  4. D.25 m
  5. E.50 m
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer D: 25 m

With initial speed u = 0 and constant acceleration, s = ut + ½at² = ½ × 2.0 × 5.0².

The distance is 25 m. Alternatively, the final speed is 10 m/s and the average speed over the interval is 5 m/s, giving 5 × 5 = 25 m.

Question 2 · Electricity

A 4 Ω resistor and a 6 Ω resistor are connected in series across an ideal 12 V supply. What current flows through the 4 Ω resistor?

  1. A.0.5 A
  2. B.1.2 A
  3. C.2.0 A
  4. D.3.0 A
  5. E.5.0 A
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer B: 1.2 A

Series resistances add, so the total resistance is 4 + 6 = 10 Ω. Ohm's law gives I = V/R = 12/10 = 1.2 A.

The same current flows through both series resistors. Using 12/4 would incorrectly assign the entire supply voltage to the 4 Ω resistor.

Question 3 · Work and energy

A constant 12 N force acts in the direction of an object's 5.0 m displacement. How much work does this force do?

  1. A.2.4 J
  2. B.17 J
  3. C.30 J
  4. D.60 J
  5. E.120 J
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer D: 60 J

Work by a constant force is W = Fd cos θ. Here force and displacement are parallel, so θ = 0 and cos θ = 1.

W = 12 × 5.0 = 60 J. This is work by the stated force; without information about other forces, it need not equal the net change in kinetic energy.

Question 4 · Fluid pressure

Water has density 1000 kg/m³. Take g = 10 m/s². How much greater is the pressure at a depth of 0.40 m than at the water surface?

  1. A.40 Pa
  2. B.400 Pa
  3. C.4000 Pa
  4. D.10 000 Pa
  5. E.40 000 Pa
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: 4000 Pa

The hydrostatic pressure difference is Δp = ρgh. Substituting SI values gives 1000 × 10 × 0.40 = 4000 Pa.

The question asks for the difference from surface pressure. Atmospheric pressure cancels from this comparison; it would need to be included for an absolute pressure calculation.

IMAT Mathematics practice questions

Review the Mathematics topics and study guide.

Question 1 · Algebra

Solve 3(2x − 1) = 15. What is x?

  1. A.2
  2. B.3
  3. C.4
  4. D.6
  5. E.9
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer B: 3

Divide both sides by 3 to obtain 2x − 1 = 5. Add 1, then divide by 2: x = 3.

Check the original expression: 3(2 × 3 − 1) = 3 × 5 = 15. Keeping the bracket intact avoids a distribution error.

Question 2 · Probability

A bag contains three red balls and two blue balls. Two balls are drawn randomly without replacement. What is the probability that both are red?

  1. A.1/5
  2. B.3/10
  3. C.9/25
  4. D.2/5
  5. E.3/5
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer B: 3/10

The first draw is red with probability 3/5. Given a red first draw, two red balls remain among four balls, so the second probability is 2/4.

Multiply the conditional probabilities: (3/5) × (2/4) = 3/10. Squaring 3/5 would describe independent draws with replacement.

Question 3 · Logarithms

For a real number x, log₂(x − 1) = 3. What is x?

  1. A.4
  2. B.6
  3. C.7
  4. D.8
  5. E.9
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer E: 9

The logarithm statement is equivalent to x − 1 = 2³ = 8, so x = 9.

The domain requires x − 1 > 0. The solution satisfies that condition. Substituting gives log₂(8) = 3.

Question 4 · Conditional probability

In a club, 12 students study biology, 15 study chemistry, and six study both. One biology student is selected at random. What is the probability that this student also studies chemistry?

  1. A.1/5
  2. B.2/5
  3. C.1/2
  4. D.3/5
  5. E.4/5
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: 1/2

Conditioning on a biology student changes the sample space to the 12 students who study biology. Six of those also study chemistry.

The probability is 6/12 = 1/2. Dividing by 15 would answer a different question: the probability of studying biology given that the selected student studies chemistry.

IMAT Logical Reasoning practice questions

Review the Logical Reasoning topics and study guide.

Question 1 · Deduction

Every student in Group P has completed a diagnostic test. Nora is a student in Group P. Which statement must be true?

  1. A.Nora had the highest score
  2. B.Only Group P students completed the test
  3. C.Nora completed a diagnostic test
  4. D.Nora completed every available test
  5. E.Every student who completed the test is in Group P
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: Nora completed a diagnostic test

The rule applies to every member of Group P, and Nora is a member. Therefore Nora completed a diagnostic test.

The premises say nothing about scores, other tests, or who else completed the diagnostic. The final option reverses the original implication.

Question 2 · Rates

Two identical printers working together print 120 pages in 6 minutes. Each runs at a constant rate. How long would three such printers take to print 180 pages?

  1. A.3 minutes
  2. B.4 minutes
  3. C.6 minutes
  4. D.9 minutes
  5. E.12 minutes
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: 6 minutes

The two printers together produce 120/6 = 20 pages per minute, so each produces 10 pages per minute.

Three printers produce 30 pages per minute. Printing 180 pages takes 180/30 = 6 minutes. Both the workload and the number of printers increase by the same factor.

Question 3 · Necessary and sufficient conditions

Every candidate who attends Workshop W receives a revision sheet. Sam received a revision sheet. Which conclusion is justified by these statements alone?

  1. A.Sam definitely attended Workshop W
  2. B.Sam definitely did not attend Workshop W
  3. C.Nobody else received a revision sheet
  4. D.Sam may or may not have attended Workshop W
  5. E.Receiving a sheet is sufficient proof of attendance
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer D: Sam may or may not have attended Workshop W

The premise says attendance implies receiving a sheet. It does not say sheets are available only to attendees.

Sam's receipt is compatible with attendance, but also with another way of getting a sheet. Inferring attendance would reverse the implication.

Question 4 · Ordering constraints

Four tasks P, Q, R and S must be completed once each. P must be before Q; R must be after Q; S must be before P. Which order satisfies every rule?

  1. A.P, S, Q, R
  2. B.S, P, R, Q
  3. C.S, P, Q, R
  4. D.Q, S, P, R
  5. E.R, S, P, Q
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: S, P, Q, R

Combining the constraints gives S before P before Q before R. The order S, P, Q, R satisfies all three statements.

Check the alternatives against each rule rather than checking only one pair. For example, S, P, R, Q puts R before Q and therefore fails.

IMAT Reading Skills practice questions

Review the Reading Skills topics and study guide.

Question 1 · Evidence and inference

Original practice passage: 'A library extended its opening hours during exam week. Evening visits increased, but the library did not measure visitors' exam results.' Which conclusion is supported?

  1. A.Longer opening hours improved exam results
  2. B.Every student visited in the evening
  3. C.Evening visits increased during the extended-hours period
  4. D.The library proved that study time causes higher scores
  5. E.The library should remain open all night
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer C: Evening visits increased during the extended-hours period

The passage directly reports an increase in evening visits. This is the only option confined to the available evidence.

No exam results were measured. The passage cannot support a conclusion about attainment, causation, every student's behaviour, or a policy recommendation.

Question 2 · Author purpose

Original practice passage: 'Flashcards can help recall definitions. However, students also need to explain relationships and solve unfamiliar problems.' What is the author's main purpose?

  1. A.To argue that flashcards are useless
  2. B.To recommend using flashcards as the only method
  3. C.To compare the prices of study tools
  4. D.To explain a benefit of flashcards while identifying their limits
  5. E.To claim that definitions never matter
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer D: To explain a benefit of flashcards while identifying their limits

The first sentence acknowledges a benefit and the second introduces a limitation. Together, they support a balanced description of the tool's role.

The word however signals qualification, rather than a complete rejection. Options using only, useless, or never exaggerate the passage.

Question 3 · Causal claims

Original passage: 'Students who used a revision app reported more weekly study time. The survey did not assign students to use the app, and students chose whether to respond.' Which statement is best supported?

  1. A.The app caused every student to study more
  2. B.The survey reports an association, but does not establish causation
  3. C.Students who did not respond studied less
  4. D.Random assignment proved the app effective
  5. E.Reported study time is always exact
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer B: The survey reports an association, but does not establish causation

The passage describes a reported association in a voluntary survey. It explicitly says there was no assignment to app use.

Pre-existing motivation and response selection could help explain the association. The passage cannot establish an effect on every student, the behaviour of nonrespondents, or the accuracy of every report.

Question 4 · Qualification and scope

Original passage: 'Some learners find short daily revision sessions easier to maintain than one long weekly session. However, unfamiliar topics may still require longer periods of focused study.' Which statement best captures the author's position?

  1. A.Long study sessions should never be used
  2. B.Every learner prefers daily revision
  3. C.Daily revision guarantees higher exam scores
  4. D.Unfamiliar topics can only be learned weekly
  5. E.Short revision can support consistency, while longer study may serve a different need
Show answer and worked explanation

Answer E: Short revision can support consistency, while longer study may serve a different need

The first sentence gives a possible benefit of short sessions for some learners. The second qualifies the claim by identifying a role for longer focused study.

The correct option preserves both claims and their limits. Words such as every, never and guarantees add certainty that the passage does not provide.

By MEDichondria · Updated · How our public content is prepared

Public samples and workspace practice

Free examples and the MEDichondria IMAT question bank

The 28 examples above are public and need no account. The signed-in workspace provides configurable question-bank practice by subject, topic, difficulty and question count, with timing, confidence and review. Your saved study activity stays in the private workspace.

Inside the practice workflow

Configure, answer, and review in one loop.

MEDichondria is designed to keep the purpose of a set visible before, during, and after practice.

  1. 01

    Choose the scope

    Select subjects, topics, difficulty, and question count so each set has a clear purpose.

  2. 02

    Practise under time

    Use a visible timer to train decision-making and pacing without hiding accuracy problems.

  3. 03

    Record confidence

    Separate secure knowledge from correct guesses and uncertain methods.

  4. 04

    Mark for review

    Save questions that deserve a second look before submitting or during later revision.

  5. 05

    Read explanations

    Compare your reasoning with the intended route, including why tempting alternatives fail.

  6. 06

    Find weak areas

    Use subject and topic results to turn performance into a focused next study block.

Try the review method

Answer, rate confidence, then inspect the reasoning.

Use one shared example to practise the review process instead of treating another version of the same question as a new diagnostic.

  1. Try the logical reasoning deduction example above before opening its solution.
  2. Write the premises and the conclusion that must follow. Record whether your confidence is high, medium or low.
  3. Reveal the worked explanation and check why each tempting alternative goes beyond the premises. Review uncertain correct answers as well as errors.

For a complete historical-format practice paper, use the IMAT score calculator after marking against its answer key. These introductory samples are not a complete mock or an admission prediction.

Practise by subject

Match question work to the thinking each track requires.

Focused sets help isolate a skill. Mixed sets test whether you can recognise the subject, retrieve the method, and switch efficiently.

Biology

Processes, systems, experimental interpretation

Chemistry

Concepts, equations, quantitative reasoning

Physics

Models, units, graphs, problem solving

Mathematics

Fluency, relationships, efficient calculation

Logical Reasoning & Problem Solving

Evidence, assumptions, deductions

Reading Skills & Knowledge Acquired During Studies

Meaning, evidence, interpretation

See every topic in the syllabus

The error review

Name the cause before choosing the fix.

A score reports the outcome. An error category tells you what to do next.

Review correct-but-uncertain answers too.

Low confidence, a slow method, or a tempting distractor can expose a weakness before it becomes a wrong answer.

Knowledge

01

Did I lack a fact, definition, mechanism, or equation?

Next action

Return to the smallest relevant study section and retrieve it again.

Interpretation

02

Did I misread the stem, evidence, graph, or requested quantity?

Next action

Restate what is given and what is asked before checking the options.

Method

03

Did I know the content but choose an inefficient or invalid route?

Next action

Write a short reusable decision rule and solve a similar question.

Pacing

04

Did time pressure cause a rushed answer or an expensive dead end?

Next action

Define a skip-and-return trigger, then rehearse it in a timed set.

Use official IMAT papers carefully.

Previous official material is useful for studying question construction and practising decisions. Preserve the papers for deliberate attempts, review every option, and remember that an older paper does not confirm the current year's final format.

Visit the official MUR admission archive (opens in a new tab)

Focused sets or mock tests?

Topic practice, IMAT practice tests or full mocks?

  • Use topic sets to repair a specific concept or method.
  • Use mixed sets to train recognition and switching.
  • Use timed sections to investigate pacing.
  • Use full mocks to rehearse endurance and an officially confirmed format.

Practice questions FAQ

Use questions at the right time and scale.

When should I start doing IMAT practice questions?

Start early with small topic sets. Questions help reveal what you misunderstood and how knowledge is applied. Add mixed and timed work gradually as core accuracy improves.

Are IMAT past papers enough for preparation?

Past papers are valuable for question style, application, and pacing, but they are a limited set. Combine them with syllabus study, targeted drills, and careful error review. Always check the current annual decree before simulating a final format.

Should I review questions I answered correctly?

Yes when confidence was low, the method was slow, or another option nearly persuaded you. A correct guess can reveal the same learning need as a wrong answer.

How often should I take a full IMAT mock test?

Use full simulations when you have enough syllabus coverage to learn from the result. Match them to the official format for your admission cycle, while using smaller targeted sets to repair specific gaps.

Complete the learning loop.

Return from question results to the exact topic that needs work, then test it again later.

Read the preparation guide

Subject guides

Choose a subject. Try a worked example.

Use these public guides to plan your study order, identify common mistakes, and practise with original questions and explained answers before opening the full workspace.

Public IMAT resources

Choose the next step in your preparation.

IMAT study plan

A 12-week schedule, weekly routine, and shorter or longer preparation options.

Official IMAT past papers

MUR paper links and a method for timed attempts and useful error review.

IMAT score calculator

Calculate a raw practice score using the historical marking model, with worked examples.

MEDichondria workspace

Build an IMAT practice set with a clear purpose.

Choose the scope, work through the questions, record confidence, and use the review to decide exactly what to study next.

Open the workspace